Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 10:55
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What are your funniest "lost in translation" moments if you grew up speaking more than one language?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Sint temporibus laudantium dolore id ea aliquam.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.